benjenbav
Well-known member
I glanced at the original post in this thread just now - thinking perhaps to add that a broker’s description of an item as ‘VAT not applicable’ (or similar wording) should not be taken as a warranty. It’s advertising puffery; applicable when certain planets align.Courts do have an influence, but little in this type of situation. They interpret law when it is statutory to see if it has been applied correctly - not whether it is fair or good law. This is different from common law where law is developed through precedent. It is really difficult to see what sort of case could be made in this instance as the law is clear about what is and is not allowed. The way to change law of this type is through the political process in just the same way as the labelling law has been changed.
The examples I have given of avoiding laws with respect to boats have been non payment of VAT. I can also recall examples around the 1998 change of boats imported from the US by individuals being impounded for non compliance with the RCD. Also cases of boats owned by Americans that had crossed the Atlantic and entered under TA where the owners were unable to sail them back but were also unable to sell because they did not comply with the RCD. A forum member recently looked at buying a boat in Europe that was built in the US to "European" standards but was not certified. It was a pre 2013 boat and he quickly discovered that the cost of certifying it was prohibitive. The boat was taken back to the US and sold there.
As to the chances of "getting caught", these are potentially much higher now given the more robust customs and immigration regime introduced since Brexit. However this kind of activity has always been marginal and perhaps more likely to be accidental than a deliberate attempt to break the law.
Then, with some regret, I saw that the thread had descended into RCD wars volume 94. FWIW, as I think you know, I agree with your interpretation and have nothing to add to that.
But, I’m posting because this thread has touched on one issue which I think is quite intriguing; namely the extent to which the UK courts can intervene to do anything beyond interpret legislation.
One outcome of UK’s decision to leave the EU is that we now have a legal system in which Parliament is sovereign. It’s simply not constitutional for the courts to seek to change legislation any more as it was in the days when the European Court played a role in modifying legislation.
I offer no opinion on this; to do so would break the rules of this forum. This is just how things are.