Bandit
Well-known member
In the UK, am I correct in saying that marine mineral diesel (ie no bio content) in effect has a 60/40% split for VAT purposes. So 60% of the diesel is charged as propulsion fuel and incurs a VAT levy at 20% by value and the other 40% of the diesel is deemed VAT free on the assumption it is for heating purposes?
Am I also correct in assuming there is no other overlying duty or tax on the diesel other than the VAT as described above?
Am I also correct in assuming there is no other overlying duty or tax on the diesel other than the VAT as described above?