NormanS
Well-known member
When James VI inherited the English crown he became King of England as well as remaining King of Scots. At that time the monarch was very much at the centre of government, so a de facto single centralised administration was inevitably established in London, but the countries remained legally separate with their own laws and judiciaries, the Scottish parliament continuing to sit as before.
So from 1603 to 1707 it would be fair to regard Britain as a partially united kingdom, but certainly not in any legal sense the United Kingdom or a single country. Thus, when Charles the first was executed at the command of the English parliament, the Scottish parliament resolved to punitively invade England since the English had judicially murdered the King of Scots.
How many angels can dance on the head of a pin?
Of course it was a united kingdom. If the one king was king of both countries, then it was a united kingdom. What part don't you understand?
When Scotland becomes an independent country again, then unless it decides to reject the monarchy, and become a republic, which seems unlikely, Scotland and England will still be members of a united kingdom. QED.