NickCharman
Member
I have read on the HMRC website that they believe, following consultation, the average split of useage for recreational boaters to be 60% propulsion, 40% domestic. But should this not be segmented between Power Boats and Sailing boats? I should have thought that as engines in Sailing Yachts are only used for manoeuvring in and out of harbour, and part of that useage is incidentally for battery recharging, and water heating, then I should be surprised if as much as 10% of a sailing yachts useage was for propulsion. Of course a Motor Vessel would be less able to claim that they propel themselves much except with the use of fuel, and so a greater proportion of propulsion useage is inevitable.
As each of us is responsible for declaring their future intended useage of the fuel to be purchased, and our intentions must of course be estimates only, depending on conditions, and no audit trail of historic useage is proposed, how can such claims for such intentions on fuel purchase be indefensible?
I do not understand. Any views/wisdom there?
As each of us is responsible for declaring their future intended useage of the fuel to be purchased, and our intentions must of course be estimates only, depending on conditions, and no audit trail of historic useage is proposed, how can such claims for such intentions on fuel purchase be indefensible?
I do not understand. Any views/wisdom there?