Shalimar31
New Member
Hello, I was wondering if someone would give me advice regarding the bill of sale of my vessel?
Long story short, I sold my last (solely owned) boat a number of years ago in order to purchase my fathers boat as he was in severe financial difficulties.
I went ahead, and gave him payments via a cheque, card machine payment, and cash.
Three years ago, we decided to sell the boat, and put the money towards a larger vessel. A local broker sold my boat for us, and supplied us with a larger vessel.
The broker was well aware that the boat he was selling belonged to myself. This was put to him in writing, and he also knows us from being in the same marina as us for over 10 years.
My parents paid the balance for the larger vessel, which equated to nearly 1/3rd the value of my boat that was being sold.
However, I have only recently been given copies of the bills of sale.
Firstly, my father signed the sale agreement for my boat, with no mention of myself. Surely this cannot be valid as the broker knew that I owned the boat, and that my father was only acting on my behalf?
Secondly, there is no mention of me on the bill of sale for the larger vessel, even tho the sale of my vessel paid for more than 2/3rds of it!
When I recently approached the broker regarding this, he told me to sort it out with my father and that he wants nothing to do with it! Oh, the he said 'tough luck' to me!
Ultimately, it has been pointed out to me that the culmination of the paperwork indicates that I have nothing to do with the new larger vessel, legally.
My sister is using this to her advantage, and has convinced my parents to let her and her family have the boat as they have kids and I do not! This has caused a split in the family.
Is the broker at fault here?
Does anyone think that I have a legal right to have the broker provide new documents to myself?
Long story short, I sold my last (solely owned) boat a number of years ago in order to purchase my fathers boat as he was in severe financial difficulties.
I went ahead, and gave him payments via a cheque, card machine payment, and cash.
Three years ago, we decided to sell the boat, and put the money towards a larger vessel. A local broker sold my boat for us, and supplied us with a larger vessel.
The broker was well aware that the boat he was selling belonged to myself. This was put to him in writing, and he also knows us from being in the same marina as us for over 10 years.
My parents paid the balance for the larger vessel, which equated to nearly 1/3rd the value of my boat that was being sold.
However, I have only recently been given copies of the bills of sale.
Firstly, my father signed the sale agreement for my boat, with no mention of myself. Surely this cannot be valid as the broker knew that I owned the boat, and that my father was only acting on my behalf?
Secondly, there is no mention of me on the bill of sale for the larger vessel, even tho the sale of my vessel paid for more than 2/3rds of it!
When I recently approached the broker regarding this, he told me to sort it out with my father and that he wants nothing to do with it! Oh, the he said 'tough luck' to me!
Ultimately, it has been pointed out to me that the culmination of the paperwork indicates that I have nothing to do with the new larger vessel, legally.
My sister is using this to her advantage, and has convinced my parents to let her and her family have the boat as they have kids and I do not! This has caused a split in the family.
Is the broker at fault here?
Does anyone think that I have a legal right to have the broker provide new documents to myself?