Buying boat from one half of recently separated couple UK

Consider this example: owner A, showing a bill of sale BOS from when he bought the boat, sells it to B. B now owns the boat with a new BOS. However, a few months later, A "sells" the boat again, using his original BOS and spare key, to you. Based on your logic, you would not have any worries?

Given the state of the used boat market I’d say getting two sales completed in quick succession without the new owner noticing is unlikely!
 
Consider this example: owner A, showing a bill of sale BOS from when he bought the boat, sells it to B. B now owns the boat with a new BOS. However, a few months later, A "sells" the boat again, using his original BOS and spare key, to you. Based on your logic, you would not have any worries?
Sweet Jesus give us patience.
 
For me - if I was Mr B ...
a) I would always ask for all docs / keys on buying a boat - ie sellers original Bill of sale showing he bought the boat, as well as any surveys etc.
b) My Bill of Sale would cover all responsibilities of sale .. with seller liable for falsehoods.
b) I would change key / locks if possible anyway.
c) Most likely I would be moving the boat to my choice of mooring etc.

If such a scenario occurred - would that not be Mr A committing Fraud ? A criminal act ?

Mr A would be naughty, yes. And of course he won't give Mr C a copy of his BOS to Mr B. Result is that Mr C, even with a "clean title" promise from Mr A, is unlikely to keep the boat or get his money back.

Mr C's position is similar to where OP would be if he buys a boat that, maybe, a court assigned to ex-Mrs A before.

That's the risk OP is asking about, I think?
 
For me - if I was Mr B ...
a) I would always ask for all docs / keys on buying a boat - ie sellers original Bill of sale showing he bought the boat, as well as any surveys etc.
b) My Bill of Sale would cover all responsibilities of sale .. with seller liable for falsehoods.
b) I would change key / locks if possible anyway.
c) Most likely I would be moving the boat to my choice of mooring etc.

If such a scenario occurred - would that not be Mr A committing Fraud ? A criminal act ?
He would indeed be committing fraud by false representation. However this type of thing could occur just with a normal sale. It gets to a point where you can do as much due diligence as you can, after that there is always a (very slight) risk that you have to run with. In this situation C has bought stolen goods and as such isn't the legal owner and needs to get restitution.

It's not the same as the OPs situation since the goods are not stolen in this case - the seller has just realised an 'asset' from the relationship. Whether he's trying to hide the proceeds or not from the other party is between him and the other party (or solicitors) and doesn't result in the goods becoming stolen. It's a civil matter, though it may result in the OP becoming involved in the financial proceedings and they may not want that.
 
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