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Deleted User YDKXO
Guest
Sorry to keep this thread going, but I don't quite get that. The MCA Bill of Sale has no mention of where the transaction took place, so how can it be the key document that determines which state is responsible for VAT?
As an example, say a UK co. buys a British registered boat, reclaims the VAT, and then ships it out to the French Med to run a charter business. They then sell the boat to a British individual, and the parties complete an MCA Bill of Sale. As you said, VAT follows the goods, not the nationality of the buyer/seller, or where the boat is registered, so surely they have to account for French VAT on the sale? An MCA Bill of Sale doesn't prove to the Douanes that the boat wasn't purchased in France.
I think you are correct, VAT would be payable in France on the transaction but as a separate payment to French Customs and not shown on the invoice from the seller to the buyer. In fact the buyer/seller would have choice when and where to pay the VAT. If the VAT% was lower in Spain, for example, the boat could be moved there prior to the sale taking place in order to pay the VAT. In fact that would be highly desirable because the VAT would be assessed on a notional value of the boat which, AFAIK, is usually lower than the actual value