NigelCraig
Well-Known Member
As I understand it if I sell a privately owned and used boat (i.e. mine) and I am not doing it as a business, VAT is irrelevant. Apart from anything else, the value is reduced (from new) not added. If it was a relatively new boat I would need to prove VAT was originally paid on the purchase as a new item. However, if I buy a (used) boat from a broker which was proved to have the original VAT paid (might be difficult on a boat from mid-70s say) although the broker is doing it as a business, as far as I can see, the only value added is the brokers service, which is a service to the vendor essentially, who pays VAT on the brokerage fee. The buyer should pay nothing. Am I correct?