Nick_H
Well-Known Member
The market value is more usually defined as what someone is prepared to PAY. So, if the market value is £100k, because that's what someone is prepared to pay, and the seller has the choice of selling it privately and keeping £100k, or selling it through broker and keeping £95k, then there's an argument that the seller is paying the brokers fees, albeit the money comes directly out of the amount paid by the buyer.
The other side of the argument is that if the buyer values the involvement of the broker, and will therefore pay more than he would privately, then he's paying the brokers fee.
The other side of the argument is that if the buyer values the involvement of the broker, and will therefore pay more than he would privately, then he's paying the brokers fee.