plato-gb
Member
old thread but came across it and yes, there is a law re vat debt 'inheritance'
Here are your commenets:
[/ QUOTE ]
David that is often stated (especially on these forums) but it's not correct. I challenge anyone to find a law saying that if A sells a boat to B, and A/B didn't correctly account for VAT on that transaction, then later B sells to C in good faith, C is liable for the VAT on the A-B transaction.
Here is the text from the VAT act 1994 along with link and reference:
http://www.opsi.gov.uk/ACTS/acts1994/plain/ukpga_19940023_en_8
Part IV Administration, collection and enforcement
72 Offences
(10) If any person acquires possession of or deals with any goods, or accepts the supply of any services, having reason to believe that VAT on the supply of the goods or services, on the acquisition of the goods from another member State or on the importation of the goods from a place outside the member States has been or will be evaded, he shall be liable on summary conviction to a penalty of level 5 on the standard scale or three times the amount of the VAT, whichever is the greater.
I have been researching the subject because I have a situation (you don't want to know) and I came across the thread these statements come from.
When you refer to transaction A/B not having been correctly accounted for, you are assuming B did not know this and therefore 'in good faith' sold the boat to C.
The VAT man would quite legitimately claim the VAT from C who would then have to prove he 'knew nothing' as woul B before they could both try to pin it on A. But the point of whether or not the VAT would be claimed from C is clear. Not only would he be expected to pay it, but he would have to prove he didn't know anything or be liable to pay "three times the amount of the VAT".
So this is a VERY serious problem both for someone selling or buying a boat without proof of VAT paid.
Rgds,
Here are your commenets:
[/ QUOTE ]
David that is often stated (especially on these forums) but it's not correct. I challenge anyone to find a law saying that if A sells a boat to B, and A/B didn't correctly account for VAT on that transaction, then later B sells to C in good faith, C is liable for the VAT on the A-B transaction.
Can you give me the citation so I can read it in context? Ta
Here is the text from the VAT act 1994 along with link and reference:
http://www.opsi.gov.uk/ACTS/acts1994/plain/ukpga_19940023_en_8
Part IV Administration, collection and enforcement
72 Offences
(10) If any person acquires possession of or deals with any goods, or accepts the supply of any services, having reason to believe that VAT on the supply of the goods or services, on the acquisition of the goods from another member State or on the importation of the goods from a place outside the member States has been or will be evaded, he shall be liable on summary conviction to a penalty of level 5 on the standard scale or three times the amount of the VAT, whichever is the greater.
I have been researching the subject because I have a situation (you don't want to know) and I came across the thread these statements come from.
When you refer to transaction A/B not having been correctly accounted for, you are assuming B did not know this and therefore 'in good faith' sold the boat to C.
The VAT man would quite legitimately claim the VAT from C who would then have to prove he 'knew nothing' as woul B before they could both try to pin it on A. But the point of whether or not the VAT would be claimed from C is clear. Not only would he be expected to pay it, but he would have to prove he didn't know anything or be liable to pay "three times the amount of the VAT".
So this is a VERY serious problem both for someone selling or buying a boat without proof of VAT paid.
Rgds,