Can someone explain this to me...

andy_wilson

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Figo clearly and intentionally butts a player in the face. An assistant tells the ref. who gives Figo a yellow card. FIFA say no further action as it was dealt with on the pitch.

Rooney is brought to ground by two players who fail to keep him down. Whilst his eye is never turned away from the ball that he continues to strive for, he steps on one of the aforementioned. He gets a red card, but despite the alleged offence being dealt with on the pitch, he is subsequently awarded a further penalty - a two match ban.

How's that then?
 

RufusM

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Sorry can't explain this is the last post!! /forums/images/graemlins/smile.gif /forums/images/graemlins/tongue.gif /forums/images/graemlins/tongue.gif
 

Mike21

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Maybe, but general whinging, complaining and being sore losers competition definitely won by english /forums/images/graemlins/grin.gif
 
D

Deleted User YDKXO

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Its because anyone who gets a red card has his case considered by FIFA to see whether further punishment is merited. In Figo's case, he got a yellow card and FIFA cannot consider the case further because the ref considered a yellow card sufficient punishment
The real questions are these. Zidane was red carded in the final clearly on the evidence of the 4th or 5th official who either saw the incident live or on the telly. If so, why was'nt Figo red carded in the same way as the 4th or 5th official in that match must have seen the incident? Secondly, in the Premier League in the UK, the League have the power to review incidents after the match whether or not any card was issued by the ref. Why dont FIFA give themselves this power?
 
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